named after the Jesus Lied guy.
It's the question over John 18:20
20 Jesus answered him, I spake openly to the world; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing.John 18:20 NSV
So, first, WHAT does this passage mean?
Based on John 7:26 the intent of the author is to equate or link the act of teaching in public with the priests, rabbis and government officials somehow agreeing with (in their own minds) that Jesus was the Christ. I.E. the implication is “they knew”. So, in John 18:20 the author is putting the insinuation into Jesus' mouth that “You know I am the Christ, so how can your accusation be true?”
Based on this verse the point is being emphasized that the character of Jesus is aligned with the character of God–because God does not do things in secret (Amos 3:7 God does nothing without revealing it to his prophets). So, this looks bad now, because why did Jesus say this? Was it done to insert this (i.e whole-cloth lie) to promote the character of Jesus OR was it incidental? The question arises because it's such an odd thing to say out of the blue when questioned about his teaching.
Overall when these passages appear in the NT they appear to somehow insinuate against those who 'should have known', to implicate them in some manner– or to link Jesus with the old testament – but not as natural statements in the story.
The reason, then, is solely to implicate people who do not automatically believe Jesus:
The dichotomy is over Isaiah 6:8-10; “Isaiah's Commission from the Lord”.
8 And I heard the voice of the Lord saying, “Whom shall I send, and who will go for us?” Then I said, “Here I am! Send me.” 9 And he said, “Go, and say to this people:
“‘Keep on hearing,[c] but do not understand; keep on seeing,[d] but do not perceive.’ 10 Make the heart of this people dull,[e]
and their ears heavy, and blind their eyes;lest they see with their eyes,
and hear with their ears,and understand with their hearts,
and turn and be healed.”
Now, John (and Jesus) is aware of this dichotomy because he specifically says 'I taught openly (therefore you knew I was the Christ), and that this was specifically done so that 'Those who know can therefore be judged,' which is a central purpose of Jesus abrogating the law as the primary covenant. Therefore, when Jesus then taught 'because hearing they do not hear,' he is intending that the people do not understand SO THAT they do not 'turn and be healed'. But this is a surface level awareness; for example Jesus utterly fails to remember that he fulfilled this prophecy in Luke 4:18; “He has sent me to proclaim liberty to the captives and recovering of sight to the blind,” (Isaiah 61:1).
Therefore, it is not just that jesus lied, but that he is utterly unaware of Old Testament prophecy AND of his own prophecy and fulfillment of prophecy. The book of John looks like a whole-cloth construct for the sole purpose of trying to connect Jesus to an apellation of the Old Testament– a version of it, that is patently spurious on it's face.
Conclusion, Jesus Lied.