named after the Jesus Lied guy.

It's the question over John 18:20

20 Jesus answered him, I spake openly to the world; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing.John 18:20 NSV

So, first, WHAT does this passage mean?

• John 7:26: And here he is, speaking openly, and they say nothing to him! Can it be that the authorities really know that this is the Christ?

Based on John 7:26 the intent of the author is to equate or link the act of teaching in public with the priests, rabbis and government officials somehow agreeing with (in their own minds) that Jesus was the Christ. I.E. the implication is “they knew”. So, in John 18:20 the author is putting the insinuation into Jesus' mouth that “You know I am the Christ, so how can your accusation be true?”

• Isaiah 48:16: Draw near to me, hear this: from the beginning I have not spoken in secret, from the time it came to be I have been there.” And now the Lord God has sent me, and his Spirit.

Based on this verse the point is being emphasized that the character of Jesus is aligned with the character of God–because God does not do things in secret (Amos 3:7 God does nothing without revealing it to his prophets). So, this looks bad now, because why did Jesus say this? Was it done to insert this (i.e whole-cloth lie) to promote the character of Jesus OR was it incidental? The question arises because it's such an odd thing to say out of the blue when questioned about his teaching.